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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Jul 7, 2015 at 10:42 history edited Giovanni Moreno CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 7, 2015 at 9:44 comment added Michael Bächtold Here's an explicit counterexample: $B=C^\infty(\mathbb{R})$, $M=B\oplus B$ and consider the first order operators $D_1: (f,g)\mapsto (\partial f,g)$ and $D_2: (f,g)\mapsto (\partial g, \partial f)$. Now $[D_1,D_2]$ is of order 2 and not 1, hence $\mathcal{D}(M,M)$ is not almost commutative. So finitely generated an projective is not enough. Maybe invertible $M$ will do.
Jul 7, 2015 at 8:14 comment added Michael Bächtold Wouldn't almost commutative require that any two zero order operators $D_1,D_2:M\to M$ commute?
Jul 7, 2015 at 7:54 history answered Giovanni Moreno CC BY-SA 3.0