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Apr 16, 2021 at 18:27 history edited Daniele Tampieri CC BY-SA 4.0
Math Jaxed
Oct 25, 2009 at 5:33 vote accept Tom Leinster
Oct 25, 2009 at 5:33 history bounty ended Tom Leinster
Oct 24, 2009 at 15:54 comment added Mark Meckes Deane, that's because you're a convex geometer. I think most probabilists would go for a book on infinitely divisible distributions for a proof of the lemma. I'm enough of a probabilist to think that's what a canonical source ought to be, but not enough of one actually to be familiar with those sources. In any case, lest I give anyone the wrong impression, Koldobsky's book is very well-written and makes an excellent reference for everything it has in it.
Oct 24, 2009 at 14:11 comment added Deane Yang Mark, Koldobsky's book was exactly what came to my mind when I saw this question. I think it is the right place for this.
Oct 24, 2009 at 12:34 history edited Mark Meckes CC BY-SA 2.5
Corrected typo in range of s.
Oct 24, 2009 at 12:34 comment added Mark Meckes There are probably more-canonical sources for this than Koldobsky's book; that was just the one book on my shelf that I knew had a proof of that lemma.
Oct 23, 2009 at 23:53 comment added Tom Leinster Thanks Mark! That looks promising. I'll try going through your argument tomorrow. (Incidentally, our library doesn't have Koldobsky's book, but I did eventually find it on the web, after a long trawl through various sites of increasing dodginess.)
Oct 23, 2009 at 15:51 history answered Mark Meckes CC BY-SA 2.5