Timeline for When is a sequence the sum of two Beatty sequences?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| May 11, 2016 at 14:23 | vote | accept | Clark Kimberling | ||
| Jun 29, 2015 at 19:50 | answer | added | Will Sawin | timeline score: 5 | |
| Jun 29, 2015 at 19:45 | answer | added | Gerhard Paseman | timeline score: 0 | |
| Jun 29, 2015 at 19:18 | comment | added | James Cranch | I would guess that Fourier analysis could tell you something: once you remove the linear part, what you have is a sum of some quasiperiodic phenomena with various different periods, and that's exactly the sort of thing that Fourier analysis is good at explaining. There must be someone around who can push this further (or explain why it's a stupid idea) much faster than me though. | |
| Jun 29, 2015 at 19:05 | history | edited | Clark Kimberling | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 1167 characters in body
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| Jun 29, 2015 at 17:16 | comment | added | Per Alexandersson | As Max Alekseyev says, a sequence is an infinite object, and there are many irrational numbers to test... This question might very well be undecidable, and if not, the question if a sequence is a sum of a finite number of Beatty sequences might be... | |
| Jun 29, 2015 at 16:54 | comment | added | Max Alekseyev | "Given a sequence" -- what exectly this means? Generally speaking, a sequence is an infinite object. | |
| Jun 29, 2015 at 14:42 | history | asked | Clark Kimberling | CC BY-SA 3.0 |