Timeline for Axiomatic explanation of why the volume of a parallelepiped is equal to the area of its base times its height
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
3 events
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| Jun 20, 2015 at 19:55 | comment | added | Sergei Akbarov | Federico, as far as I understand, the problem with the equivalence of these two axioms arises when we define polytopes as compact sets (spanned by... etc), then $P\setminus Q$ needs not to be a polytope, and the functional $V_n$ is not defined on $P\setminus Q$. | |
| Jun 20, 2015 at 12:43 | comment | added | Federico Poloni | Aren't the two axioms equivalent? One can extend (2) to three disjoint sets and then apply it to $P\cap Q$, $P\setminus Q$ and $Q\setminus P$ | |
| Jun 20, 2015 at 9:28 | history | answered | Liviu Nicolaescu | CC BY-SA 3.0 |