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Jun 17, 2015 at 19:53 history closed Ricardo Andrade
Derek Holt
András Bátkai
Chris Godsil
Alex Degtyarev
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Jun 17, 2015 at 17:25 history edited Stefan Kohl CC BY-SA 3.0
Tried to improve the formulation of the question.
Jun 17, 2015 at 16:53 comment added Derek Holt This was crossposted to math.stackexchange.com/questions/1328886
Jun 17, 2015 at 16:03 answer added Geoff Robinson timeline score: 2
Jun 17, 2015 at 15:49 comment added Geoff Robinson Even though I did misunderstand the question, j.p is correct: since $q-p$ is coprime to $p$ and $q$, it is coprime to $o(g)$, so that $g^{q-p}$ generates $\langle g \rangle$.
Jun 17, 2015 at 15:45 comment added Anna No. I know that $p\neq2$, so $\langle g\rangle\ne\langle g^{q-p}\rangle$
Jun 17, 2015 at 15:40 comment added j.p. @milad: Don't you have $\langle g\rangle = \langle g^{q-p}\rangle$, so both have the same centralizer and therefore their conjugacy classes have the same size?
Jun 17, 2015 at 15:26 comment added Stefan Kohl @GeoffRobinson: Is it possible that you misunderstood the question?
Jun 17, 2015 at 15:19 comment added Anna Professor Robinson, you want to say that this equality does not happens, when $G\neq\langle g\rangle$?
Jun 17, 2015 at 15:14 answer added Stefan Kohl timeline score: 3
Jun 17, 2015 at 14:57 review Close votes
Jun 17, 2015 at 19:53
Jun 17, 2015 at 14:57 comment added Anna Why do you consider $G$ is of order $pq$?
Jun 17, 2015 at 14:42 comment added Anna I cannot get your mean. Could you please explain more?
Jun 17, 2015 at 14:39 comment added j.p. I guess you could simplify $(g^{q-p})^G$ to $g^G$.
Jun 17, 2015 at 14:32 review First posts
Jun 17, 2015 at 14:43
Jun 17, 2015 at 14:32 history asked Anna CC BY-SA 3.0