Timeline for Polish spaces in probability
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
2 events
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| Apr 10, 2010 at 18:54 | comment | added | François G. Dorais | The existence of such a set does not depend on separability. Take a non-measurable set $X$ and a nonempty null set $Y$, then $X \times Y$ is null and its projection $X$ is non-measurable. However, it is true that the projection of a Borel set is always Lebesgue measurable (but not always Borel). | |
| Apr 10, 2010 at 16:25 | history | answered | fedja | CC BY-SA 2.5 |