Timeline for When is a morphism proper?
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Sep 10, 2010 at 20:32 | vote | accept | Charles Siegel | ||
| Jul 5, 2010 at 14:43 | answer | added | Barbara | timeline score: 9 | |
| Apr 10, 2010 at 2:53 | answer | added | Charles Staats | timeline score: 3 | |
| Apr 10, 2010 at 2:52 | comment | added | BCnrd | It's equivalent for the analytified map to be proper in the usual topological sense; see the Expose on analytic/algebraic stuff near the end of SGA1. This allows arbitrary schemes of finite type. | |
| Apr 10, 2010 at 1:46 | comment | added | Shizhuo Zhang | if direct image functor of a morphism preserves coherent sheaves on noetherian schemes, then this morphism is proper. The other direction is well known | |
| Apr 10, 2010 at 1:03 | history | asked | Charles Siegel | CC BY-SA 2.5 |