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Jun 8, 2015 at 20:50 comment added Yaakov Baruch @PeterMueller: yes - what I meant is that it's weaker (and easier) than proving that a specific polynomial represents infinitely many primes. But it is stronger (and harder) than your version in that it pins down that one polynomial to be in a specific finite set.
Jun 8, 2015 at 16:25 comment added Peter Mueller @Yaakov: Doesn't that imply that one of the finitely many polynomials represents infinitely many primes ...?
Jun 8, 2015 at 15:34 comment added Yaakov Baruch Another version, stronger but perhaps easier to visualize, is whether there exists a finite set of polynomials with degree >1, which overall represents infinitely many primes.
Jun 8, 2015 at 15:16 comment added Stefan Kohl Yes, of course. If you think adding this would make the question more clear, feel free to do so!
Jun 8, 2015 at 15:13 history edited Stefan Kohl CC BY-SA 3.0
Likely A_p is meant here.
Jun 8, 2015 at 14:43 history answered Peter Mueller CC BY-SA 3.0