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Timeline for When is $f(x^d)$ irreducible?

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Jun 5, 2015 at 15:37 comment added Lubin Whoops — I just noticed that I was responding on MO. It’s still an interesting question, but I think not at all at research level, so I think it would have been much better on Math Stack Exchange.
Jun 5, 2015 at 15:17 answer added Lubin timeline score: 6
Jun 5, 2015 at 13:25 comment added Lubin I think this is a really amusing question. I’ll give it some thought, and maybe get some partial answers.
Jun 5, 2015 at 12:58 comment added LSpice @j.p., that's tempting, but not quite true; consider $d = 2$, $p = 3$, and $f(x) = x + 1$.
Jun 5, 2015 at 12:53 comment added j.p. Additionally to being coprime to $p$, I'd expect that $d$ also needs to be coprime to $p^n-1$.
Jun 5, 2015 at 11:46 answer added pinaki timeline score: 0
Jun 5, 2015 at 11:32 comment added Jason Starr It can only be irreducible if $d$ is prime to $p$, obviously. But that is certainly not sufficient: $x-1$ is irreducible, but $x^2-1$ is reducible. Why do you ask this question?
Jun 5, 2015 at 11:23 history edited Marco Golla CC BY-SA 3.0
edited formatting
Jun 5, 2015 at 11:03 review First posts
Jun 5, 2015 at 11:24
Jun 5, 2015 at 11:00 history asked ssp CC BY-SA 3.0