Timeline for When is $f(x^d)$ irreducible?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
10 events
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Jun 5, 2015 at 15:37 | comment | added | Lubin | Whoops — I just noticed that I was responding on MO. It’s still an interesting question, but I think not at all at research level, so I think it would have been much better on Math Stack Exchange. | |
Jun 5, 2015 at 15:17 | answer | added | Lubin | timeline score: 6 | |
Jun 5, 2015 at 13:25 | comment | added | Lubin | I think this is a really amusing question. I’ll give it some thought, and maybe get some partial answers. | |
Jun 5, 2015 at 12:58 | comment | added | LSpice | @j.p., that's tempting, but not quite true; consider $d = 2$, $p = 3$, and $f(x) = x + 1$. | |
Jun 5, 2015 at 12:53 | comment | added | j.p. | Additionally to being coprime to $p$, I'd expect that $d$ also needs to be coprime to $p^n-1$. | |
Jun 5, 2015 at 11:46 | answer | added | pinaki | timeline score: 0 | |
Jun 5, 2015 at 11:32 | comment | added | Jason Starr | It can only be irreducible if $d$ is prime to $p$, obviously. But that is certainly not sufficient: $x-1$ is irreducible, but $x^2-1$ is reducible. Why do you ask this question? | |
Jun 5, 2015 at 11:23 | history | edited | Marco Golla | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
edited formatting
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Jun 5, 2015 at 11:03 | review | First posts | |||
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Jun 5, 2015 at 11:00 | history | asked | ssp | CC BY-SA 3.0 |