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Aug 15, 2020 at 17:54 comment added Connor Malin Yes sorry Gomez-Lopez is the other author
Aug 15, 2020 at 15:39 comment added Oscar Randal-Williams 1) You neglected one of the authors of that paper. 2) Cobordism categories seem to have their uses, but not I think for this question. 3) Though smoothing theory indeed says that framed topological manifolds can be smoothed, which answers the framed variant of the question.
Aug 15, 2020 at 14:28 comment added Connor Malin You might be able to extract it from Kupers’ paper on the topological cobordism category: arxiv.org/pdf/1810.05277.pdf . In it he mentions that his smoothing theory arguments actually imply an equivalence of the nerves of the cobordism categories in the stable framed case.
Dec 13, 2019 at 7:57 answer added Dennis Sullivan timeline score: 14
Jun 26, 2018 at 19:53 comment added Arun Debray @Victor: on a closed smooth manifold, the Wu formula describes how to recover the Stiefel-Whitney classes from Poincaré duality and the Steenrod module structure of mod 2 cohomology. The Steenrod module structure and Poincaré duality are present on closed topological manifolds, so one can use them in the same way to define Stiefel-Whitney classes. Then Stiefel-Whitney numbers can be obtained by evaluating on the fundamental class as usual.
Jan 4, 2018 at 1:58 comment added Victor I can see that the Pontryagin classes are defined for non-smooth manifolds (more generally for any oriented topological $R^n$-bundle) because the map $BSO\to BSTOP$ is known to be a rational homotopy equivalence. But why Stiefel-Whitney numbers (or classes?) can be defined for non-smooth manifolds?
Mar 3, 2017 at 20:47 comment added Tom Goodwillie What about the unoriented case? Is there a direct proof that if a smooth manifold bounds a topological manifold (or even a Poincare complex) then it bounds a smooth manifold?
Jun 23, 2015 at 14:35 comment added Oscar Randal-Williams No: it is not the quality of the map that affects the outcome of the Pontrjagin--Thom construction, but the quality of the bundle.
Jun 12, 2015 at 12:05 comment added user51223 Is this analogous, or equivalent through Thom-Pontrjagin construction, to asking whether or not within the homotopy class of a continuous map between two smooth manifolds, there is a choice of a smooth map, which vaguely I would imagine would follow from Weierstrass theorem?!
Jun 5, 2015 at 8:08 history asked Oscar Randal-Williams CC BY-SA 3.0