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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:19 history edited CommunityBot
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Jun 4, 2015 at 12:33 answer added Alexander Shamov timeline score: 11
Jun 4, 2015 at 10:17 comment added Asaf Shachar Yes, but it is not an operator norm.
Jun 4, 2015 at 10:15 answer added Denis Serre timeline score: 6
Jun 4, 2015 at 10:07 comment added Asaf Shachar Yes. I am asking about the reverse direction. Assume you are given some norm on $Hom(V,W)$. Can we find suitable norms on $V$,$W$ such that the operator norm they induce will be the original (given) norm.
Jun 4, 2015 at 10:07 history edited Denis Serre CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 4, 2015 at 10:04 comment added Surb I'm not sure to really understand your question... Do you know that $\sup_{\|x\|_V=1}\|Ax\|_W$ is a norm on $Hom(V,W)$ for any norms $\|\cdot\|_V,\|\cdot\|_W$?
Jun 4, 2015 at 10:01 history asked Asaf Shachar CC BY-SA 3.0