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Apr 9, 2010 at 12:58 vote accept Justin Curry
Apr 9, 2010 at 1:57 answer added Paul timeline score: 6
Apr 9, 2010 at 0:57 comment added Justin Curry sorry, to be accurate both $G$ and $\pi_1(X)$ need to be non-abelian to prevent UCT from getting the desired interpretation
Apr 8, 2010 at 21:54 comment added Justin Curry Yeah, I also approached this using universal coefficient theorem, but the non-abelian-ness of either $pi_1(X)$ or $G$ means UCT provides no suitable interpretation in terms of maps from $\pi_1$.
Apr 8, 2010 at 21:36 answer added Ben Webster timeline score: 5
Apr 8, 2010 at 21:29 comment added Tim Perutz To amplify part of Tyler's comment (something that Angelo has also noted): in algebraic topology courses one learns that, for path-connected spaces $X$, $H_1(X)$ is the abelianisation of $\pi_1(X)$. The "dual" statement seems to be less widely appreciated: that for any (discrete) abelian group $A$, one has $H^1(X;A)=Hom(H_1(X),A)=Hom(\pi_1(X),A)$. You can prove this using universal coefficients; the Ext term vanishes because $H_0(X)$ is free abelian.
Apr 8, 2010 at 20:46 answer added Angelo timeline score: 5
Apr 8, 2010 at 19:53 comment added Tyler Lawson One point to make is that for G a discrete group, homotopy classes of maps from a connected space X to K(G,1) are equivalent to homomorphisms $\pi_1(X) \to G$ if you take based homotopy classes, and conjugacy classes of homomorphisms if you take unbased homotopy classes.
Apr 8, 2010 at 19:00 history edited Justin Curry CC BY-SA 2.5
title change, further elaborations
Apr 8, 2010 at 18:00 history edited Justin Curry CC BY-SA 2.5
added 210 characters in body
Apr 8, 2010 at 17:31 history asked Justin Curry CC BY-SA 2.5