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May 25, 2015 at 16:26 comment added Christian Remling @owb: Thanks, you are right, of course. I've incorporated your correction now.
May 25, 2015 at 16:25 history edited Christian Remling CC BY-SA 3.0
added 14 characters in body
May 25, 2015 at 2:03 vote accept owb
May 25, 2015 at 2:16
May 25, 2015 at 1:31 comment added owb Here is a correct end of your argument: '$m+zn=0$ has no solution $z\in \mathbb Z$' implies that $n$ does not divide $m$, and hence $(\forall y) w(1,y)\ne 1$ and so $(\exists x)(\forall y) w(x,y)\ne 1$ hold in the cyclic group of order $n$. Thus if $(\forall x)(\exists y) w(x,y)=1$ holds in all cyclic groups then it holds in all groups.
May 25, 2015 at 1:29 comment added owb @Cristian Remling: There is a small inaccuracy in your argument: '$m+zn=0$ has no solution $z\in \mathbb Z$' does not imply 'that $n$ has a prime factor that does not occur in $m$' (counterexample: $m=p$ and $n=p^2$, for a prime $p$). You claim: if $(\forall x)(\exists y) w(x,y)=1$ holds in all cyclic groups of prime orders then it holds in all groups. This is not true: for any prime $p$ and $w=x^py^{p^2}$ this sentence holds in every cyclic group of prime order but fails in the infinite cyclic group.
May 24, 2015 at 5:12 comment added Christian Remling @BjørnKjos-Hanssen: I don't think this is really indirect, it's just the way I worded it, and you had already answered the second question. I just noticed you also added exactly the same argument to your answer before me, I didn't see this originally, sorry.
May 24, 2015 at 5:00 comment added Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen This addresses only Question 1; also can you make it direct rather than indirect? +1 in any case
May 24, 2015 at 4:41 history answered Christian Remling CC BY-SA 3.0