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Aug 30, 2015 at 2:32 history edited knsam CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 20, 2015 at 10:34 vote accept darya
May 19, 2015 at 16:55 comment added Joe Silverman The probability that $x$ is prime is $O(1/\log x)=O(1/n)$ and since $y\sim x$, the probability that $y$ is prime is the same. So the probability that $x$ and $y$ are both primes is $O(1/n^2)$. (Of course, I'm making some randomness and independence assumptions that can't be justified, but just to get an idea...) Summing, this suggests that there are only finitely many such solutions.
May 19, 2015 at 16:54 comment added GH from MO @LinusHamilton: Your remark is very appropriate. Let me add that the sequence $2^n-1$ is very similar, e.g. it satisfies a similar recursion, and it contains infinitely many primes if and only there are infinitely many even perfect numbers. This is one of the oldest unsolved problems in mathematics.
May 19, 2015 at 16:10 comment added Linus Hamilton This sequence is similar to Fibonacci, and we don't know whether there are infinitely many Fibonacci primes. And $n=8$ is another prime solution $x=2288805793$, $y=1321442641$, so any proof would need that as a special case. I don't know a strategy for solving this.
May 19, 2015 at 16:09 comment added knsam I still don't see how to do this with "prime" condition.
May 19, 2015 at 15:36 history edited knsam CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 19, 2015 at 15:31 comment added Geoff Robinson In the Pell like case, how do you decide whether $x$ is prime or not, and if so, whether $y$ is also prime?
May 19, 2015 at 15:06 history edited knsam CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 19, 2015 at 14:16 history answered knsam CC BY-SA 3.0