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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
May 22, 2015 at 20:10 answer added Will Brian timeline score: 3
May 22, 2015 at 19:51 history edited Will Brian CC BY-SA 3.0
I've stripped away all my previous edits and moved them into an answer.
May 22, 2015 at 18:19 comment added Joel David Hamkins Will, regarding your recent edits, it seems to me that the whole discussion would be easier to follow if in the question you stuck to the original original question only, and made all your other updates as a separate answer below, giving a clear summary as an answer all the further information that you've learned about it.
May 22, 2015 at 17:26 history edited Will Brian CC BY-SA 3.0
I've added a summary of what we now know about this question.
May 19, 2015 at 15:10 history edited Will Brian CC BY-SA 3.0
added 11 characters in body
May 19, 2015 at 15:03 history edited Will Brian CC BY-SA 3.0
added a theorem
May 18, 2015 at 22:01 comment added Will Brian Thanks -- it was a very nice answer! I've been thinking about the natural sum and product for the last half hour, and I'm convinced that van der Waerden's Theorem holds in that case. I'm writing this now in a comment because I won't have time to write out a proof until tomorrow.
May 18, 2015 at 21:57 comment added Joel David Hamkins Ah, you are right about $\alpha+F\cdot\beta$ making it trivial (even when $F$ is countably infinite). I want to think more about the natural sum and product case... By the way, it was a very nice problem!
May 18, 2015 at 21:32 comment added Will Brian @Joel: If we use $\alpha + F \cdot \beta$ then choosing the right $\beta$ will make $F \cdot \beta$ a single point, which makes the conclusion trivial. Using the natural sum and product could be very interesting, though (I hadn't thought of that). I think (a modification of) the ultrafilter proof of van der Waerden's Theorem might go through in that case, but I'll need to double-check the details before I can say for sure. If it works out I'll let you know.
May 18, 2015 at 21:00 comment added Joel David Hamkins It may be interesting to note that my argument really used that you were using the usual ordinal arithmetic (and also that you consider $\alpha+\beta\cdot F$ rather than $\alpha+F\cdot\beta$). If you have used the natural sum and product, instead of the usual sum and product, then it would break my counterexample.
May 18, 2015 at 19:11 history edited GH from MO
edited tags
May 18, 2015 at 18:48 comment added Will Brian @Ben, concerning your question about $\omega^\omega$, it looks like Joel's answer below applies equally well to $\omega^\omega$, or for that matter any indecomposable ordinal. So $\omega$ is the unique ordinal satisfying van der Waerden's Theorem.
May 18, 2015 at 18:42 vote accept Will Brian
May 18, 2015 at 18:27 answer added Joel David Hamkins timeline score: 19
May 18, 2015 at 16:04 comment added Will Brian I don't, but I think it's another good question. It's fairly easy to show that if it holds for some ordinal $\alpha$ then $\alpha$ must be indecomposable (a power of $\omega$).
May 18, 2015 at 15:58 comment added Ben Barber Do you know if this is true in, say, $\omega^\omega$?
May 18, 2015 at 15:20 history asked Will Brian CC BY-SA 3.0