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May 22, 2015 at 12:16 vote accept Fisher
May 19, 2015 at 9:54 comment added Fisher @James Martin: The exact value is $\frac{143}{108} + \sum_{i=3}^\infty \frac{i!}{(i+1)^{i+1}}$, but it seems to coincide with your integral. The idea to choose one large $x_1$ and exponential decreasing small $x_i$ is the same.
May 19, 2015 at 1:18 comment added Michael The Lorden's inequality (a bound on the overshoot of Wald-type problems) looks relevant here: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lorden%27s_inequality
May 19, 2015 at 1:11 answer added Michael timeline score: 1
May 18, 2015 at 21:58 comment added James Martin Is your $\approx 1.36$ in fact $\int_0^\infty \frac{e^{-x}}{1-xe^{-x}} dx$? This is what I get in the limit with $n$ large, $\epsilon$ small, and $x_i=(1-\epsilon)\epsilon^{i-1}$. I also haven't seen anything bigger....
May 18, 2015 at 12:07 history asked Fisher CC BY-SA 3.0