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May 29, 2015 at 11:21 vote accept Prasit
May 17, 2015 at 18:42 comment added Prasit I am now curious if the proof that you mentioned for the case when $e = 2$, can be massaged to answer the fourth question of mine.
May 17, 2015 at 11:08 comment added John Rognes @Prasit: OK, now I understand how you use that $C \wedge DC \simeq F(C, C)$ is a ring spectrum, with multiplication corresponding to composition. So you have proved that the answer to your fourth question is "no". More generally, for any essential (= not null-homotopic) map $e : X \to Y$ the smash product of $e$ with $a$ copies of the identity on $X$ and $b$ copies of the identity on $Y$ will be essential, where we assume that $X$ is finite (= dualizable) if $a>0$, and that $Y$ is finite if $b>0$.
May 17, 2015 at 2:50 comment added Prasit Thats a very concrete answer. BTW I had some alternate proof in mind. Let me know if I am making a mistake here. If we view $C \wedge DC$ as a ring spectra, say $R$, then the question boils down to whether $e \neq 0 \in \pi_*R$ implies $e_n = e \wedge 1 \wedge \ldots \wedge 1$ is nonzero. And the answer should be yes as $e$ which is nonzero factors through $e_n$. In fact $e = m \circ e_n$ where m is $n$-fold multiplication.
May 16, 2015 at 7:39 history answered John Rognes CC BY-SA 3.0