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Oct 6, 2015 at 21:38 history edited Johannes Hahn CC BY-SA 3.0
Fixed the definition of F(X,k)
May 14, 2015 at 12:26 comment added Craig Westerland Hey @GabrielC.Drummond-Cole, excellent point.
May 14, 2015 at 11:58 comment added bananastack ah, thanks, I hadn't noticed it was configuration space and not the symmetric power...
May 14, 2015 at 11:32 comment added Gabriel C. Drummond-Cole @CraigWesterland of course, the answer is not yes even at the set-theoretical level for $X$ finite.
May 14, 2015 at 6:51 vote accept Shiquan Ren
May 14, 2015 at 6:50 history edited Shiquan Ren CC BY-SA 3.0
added 70 characters in body
May 14, 2015 at 6:47 comment added Włodzimierz Holsztyński Could you introduce the notation, especially $\ F(X,k)\ $ ?
May 14, 2015 at 6:18 answer added Dylan Thurston timeline score: 6
May 14, 2015 at 6:16 history edited Shiquan Ren CC BY-SA 3.0
added 116 characters in body
May 14, 2015 at 4:58 comment added Craig Westerland Because one of the $x_i$ could be $*$, rendering the resulting $(k+1)$-tuple not a configuration of distinct points. I think that the answer is undoubtedly yes: there is an inclusion (by some set-theoretic nonsense), but no, it is almost surely not a reasonable map (in particular, it's not obvious that there is a continuous map). Note however that there is a continuous inclusion when $X$ admits an injective self map $f:X \to X$ which misses a point (say $*$); then $[x_1, ..., x_k] \mapsto [f(x_1), ..., f(x_k), *]$ works.
May 14, 2015 at 4:48 comment added bananastack sorry, it's a bit late, why is it not well-defined?
May 14, 2015 at 4:30 history asked Shiquan Ren CC BY-SA 3.0