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May 7, 2015 at 15:56 vote accept Lisa S.
May 7, 2015 at 10:53 comment added Laurent Moret-Bailly Oh, right. I had read the question too fast.
May 7, 2015 at 10:44 comment added grghxy @LaurentMoret-Bailly: All I meant is that since the given data is an ordinary smooth group $G$ and there is a stronger conclusion valid even for $G$ itself (as explained in my answer), the core result can be formulated and proved without reference to formal groups.
May 7, 2015 at 6:03 comment added Laurent Moret-Bailly "The intervention of formal groups is a red herring": why is that? The question is about formal groups.
May 7, 2015 at 4:06 history answered grghxy CC BY-SA 3.0