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Nov 5 at 3:40 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
Name of "this question", while this is on the front page
Jan 15, 2023 at 7:01 history edited Martin Sleziak CC BY-SA 4.0
a minor typo
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Sep 1, 2015 at 18:31 comment added Trevor Wilson That being said, understanding why $\{x_0,x_1,\ldots\}$ isn't necessarily a set is similar to understanding why the argument isn't valid.
Sep 1, 2015 at 18:30 comment added Trevor Wilson @columbus8myhw It's related to that, although it's possible for $\{x_0, x_1, \ldots\}$ to be a set for unrelated reasons. (For example, given a pointwise definable model of set theory, we can consider $\{x_0, x_1, \ldots\}$ from the outside, and see that it happens to equal a set in the model, namely $\mathbb{R}$ itself.) But in this case $(x_0,x_1,\ldots)$ will fail to be a sequence (of the model) and the argument will still fail (in the model).
Sep 1, 2015 at 0:17 comment added Akiva Weinberger Is it because $\{x_0,x_1,\dots\}$ isn't necessarily a set?
S May 5, 2015 at 17:56 history answered Trevor Wilson CC BY-SA 3.0
S May 5, 2015 at 17:56 history made wiki Post Made Community Wiki by Trevor Wilson