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May 7, 2015 at 9:42 comment added The Bridge @ CodeGolf : Sorry I still don"t get why and how $\tau_1$ has anything to do with local time maybe you could elaborate on this point. I think that any $\mathcal{F}_{\tau_1}$-measurable function can be written as a measurable function of $B_{\tau_1}$ so why do you introduce local time ? Best regards
May 7, 2015 at 5:54 comment added CodeGolf So I would like to know whether the law of $B_{\tau_2}-B_{\tau_1}$ depends uniquely on $(B_{\tau_1},L_{\tau_1})$ by the construction of $\tau_1$ and $\tau_2$
May 6, 2015 at 17:23 comment added The Bridge @ CodeGolf : so what ?
May 6, 2015 at 14:39 comment added CodeGolf It is true that $B_{\tau_2}-B_{\tau_1}$ is independent of $\mathcal{F}_{\tau_1}$, but the law of $B_{\tau_2}-B_{\tau_1}$ depends on $\mathcal{F}_{\tau_1}$
May 6, 2015 at 14:37 comment added CodeGolf Thanks for your reply. $\lambda$ stands for a bounded continuous function.
May 6, 2015 at 13:12 comment added The Bridge @ CodeGolf : Hi first what is $\lambda$ standing for in your last equation ? Second why do you think the Local time is involved ?
May 5, 2015 at 8:46 history asked CodeGolf CC BY-SA 3.0