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Jul 5, 2020 at 14:20 history edited Hector Blandin CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 2, 2015 at 16:21 vote accept Hector Blandin
May 6, 2015 at 14:47 history edited Hector Blandin CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 5, 2015 at 9:45 answer added Christian Remling timeline score: 2
May 5, 2015 at 0:42 history edited Hector Blandin
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May 5, 2015 at 0:24 history edited Hector Blandin CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 5, 2015 at 0:18 comment added Pedro M. Sorry, I had misunderstood the problem.
May 5, 2015 at 0:13 comment added Hector Blandin No, because the dimension is 1, when $f=(x_1+\cdots+x_n)^d$. Since any partial derivative gives us $$ \frac{\partial f}{\partial x_i}=d\cdot (x_1+\cdots+x_n)^{d-1}. $$ and $E(f)=d(d-1)\cdot (x_1+\cdots+x_n)^{d-1}$ we see that the desired dimension is always 1.
May 5, 2015 at 0:12 review Close votes
May 5, 2015 at 5:50
May 5, 2015 at 0:12 history edited Hector Blandin CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 5, 2015 at 0:03 history edited Hector Blandin CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 5, 2015 at 0:00 comment added Hector Blandin For more references and details please look at arxiv.org/abs/1504.07318
May 4, 2015 at 23:59 comment added Pedro M. This was also posted on Math.SE. Please indicate when you post in multiple forums.
May 4, 2015 at 23:59 comment added Hector Blandin It comes from my PhD thesis
May 4, 2015 at 23:57 history edited Hector Blandin CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 4, 2015 at 23:56 comment added Per Alexandersson Can you please provide a bit more background? Where does this problem appear?
May 4, 2015 at 23:56 history edited Hector Blandin CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 4, 2015 at 23:52 review First posts
May 4, 2015 at 23:56
May 4, 2015 at 23:51 history asked Hector Blandin CC BY-SA 3.0