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May 21, 2015 at 20:44 comment added Martin Hairer Writing $\Delta$ for the horizontal Laplacian, you could use $(1-\Delta)^{-\alpha} \xi$, where $\xi$ is a realisation of white noise on $\mathbb{H}$ and $\alpha$ is suitable. (You probably need $\alpha > 3/2$ to guarantee that you have one horizontal derivative and $\alpha < 2$ to make sure you don't create a vertical derivative, but I haven't checked the details, these exponents are just based on scaling.)
May 21, 2015 at 12:57 history edited Nikita Evseev CC BY-SA 3.0
typo
May 15, 2015 at 11:29 history edited Nikita Evseev CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 4, 2015 at 8:51 comment added Nikita Evseev about preserving Lie bracket math.stackexchange.com/q/365535/23566
May 4, 2015 at 7:02 comment added TaQ @Nate Eldredge: You are obviously right. I was too sloppy in my comment above. If we write $g^{-1}$ as $(x,y,t)\mapsto(u,v,w)$ , then we get the requirements that $(u_x,v_x,w_x)=(1,0,-\frac 12\,y)$ and $(u_y,v_y,w_y)=(0,1,\frac 12\,x)$ and $(u_t,v_t,w_t)=(0,0,1)$ must hold. So in particular $w_x=-\frac 12\,y$ and $w_y=\frac 12\,x$ must hold but this gives $-\frac 12=\frac 12$ at least in the distributional sense which is impossible. So such a diffeomorphism $g$ cannot exist even locally.
May 4, 2015 at 6:55 comment added Nate Eldredge @TaQ: Won't any diffeomorphism $g$ preserve the Lie bracket? So $g$ can't pull back $\partial_x, \partial_y$ to $X,Y$ since the former commute and the latter do not. I think this is true even if $g$ is only $C^1$.
May 4, 2015 at 6:08 comment added TaQ Since you are not imposing any continuity condition on $f$ , you may even take $h(t)=0$ for $t\in\mathbb Q$ and $h(t)=1$ for $t\in\mathbb R\setminus\mathbb Q$ . So the only problem is the construction of a diffeomorphism $g$ .
S May 4, 2015 at 6:04 history suggested TaQ CC BY-SA 3.0
typo corrected vertival --> vertical
May 4, 2015 at 6:01 review Suggested edits
S May 4, 2015 at 6:04
May 4, 2015 at 5:55 comment added TaQ If you can find a $C^1$ diffeomorphism $g:U\to V$ pulling $\partial_x,\partial_y,\partial_t$ back to $X,Y,T$, taking as $h:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ any continuous nowhere differentiable function, then you are done with $f=h\circ p\circ g$ where $p$ is given by $(x,y,t)\mapsto t$ . Since $X,Y,T$ are locally linearly independent, at least locally this can be done around every point.
May 4, 2015 at 5:28 history edited Nikita Evseev CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 4, 2015 at 5:20 comment added Nikita Evseev @MikeBenfield You are right. It is (if one can say) nonsmooth analysis on Carnot group. And we assume that functions could have only first derivatives (of derivatives in weak sense).
May 3, 2015 at 22:10 comment added Michael Benfield It doesn't seem relevant that you are working in the Heisenberg group. Since $T = [X,Y]$, any function that is twice differentiable for $X$ and $Y$ will also be differentiable for $T$. If the function you're seeking does exist, it will not be very regular.
May 2, 2015 at 19:06 history edited Nikita Evseev CC BY-SA 3.0
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May 2, 2015 at 18:36 history asked Nikita Evseev CC BY-SA 3.0