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Apr 29, 2015 at 20:37 vote accept Garabed Gulbenkian
Apr 28, 2015 at 20:02 comment added Joel David Hamkins One can also argue like this: if $X$ is infinite Dedekind finite, then $X$ is strictly smaller than $X(f)$, since it injects into $X(f)$ by the map $x\mapsto\{x\}$, and so if they were bijective than $X$ would be bijective with a strictly smaller set, a contradiction.
Apr 28, 2015 at 19:18 history edited Asaf Karagila CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 28, 2015 at 19:16 answer added Asaf Karagila timeline score: 5
Apr 28, 2015 at 19:15 comment added Emil Jeřábek Unless I’m missing something, $|X|=|X(f)|=|X(I)|$ implies $|P(X)|\le2|X|$, and it is easy to see that $|X(f)|\le|X|$ implies $2|X|\le|X|$, so this is not possible.
Apr 28, 2015 at 18:29 history asked Garabed Gulbenkian CC BY-SA 3.0