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I give herehere a heuristics that suggests that the quantity $\displaystyle{G_{k}:=\liminf_{n\to\infty}p_{n+k}-p_{n}}$ should be approximately equal to $k(1+H_{k})$, where $H_{k}$ is the $k$-th harmonic number. It seems that whenever $k$ doesn't divide $G_{k}$ then we have $$\dfrac{G_{k}}{k}-(1+H_{k})=-\dfrac{k+\delta_{k}}{M_{k}}$$ where $M_{k}$ is the least common multiple of the first $k$ positive integers, and $\delta_{k}$ is the number of integers $m\lt k$ such that $M_{m}=M_{k}$.

My question is: has this already been conjectured? If so, could I get some references? Of course, I also welcome any insight.

Thanks in advance.

I give here a heuristics that suggests that the quantity $\displaystyle{G_{k}:=\liminf_{n\to\infty}p_{n+k}-p_{n}}$ should be approximately equal to $k(1+H_{k})$, where $H_{k}$ is the $k$-th harmonic number. It seems that whenever $k$ doesn't divide $G_{k}$ then we have $$\dfrac{G_{k}}{k}-(1+H_{k})=-\dfrac{k+\delta_{k}}{M_{k}}$$ where $M_{k}$ is the least common multiple of the first $k$ positive integers, and $\delta_{k}$ is the number of integers $m\lt k$ such that $M_{m}=M_{k}$.

My question is: has this already been conjectured? If so, could I get some references? Of course, I also welcome any insight.

Thanks in advance.

I give here a heuristics that suggests that the quantity $\displaystyle{G_{k}:=\liminf_{n\to\infty}p_{n+k}-p_{n}}$ should be approximately equal to $k(1+H_{k})$, where $H_{k}$ is the $k$-th harmonic number. It seems that whenever $k$ doesn't divide $G_{k}$ then we have $$\dfrac{G_{k}}{k}-(1+H_{k})=-\dfrac{k+\delta_{k}}{M_{k}}$$ where $M_{k}$ is the least common multiple of the first $k$ positive integers, and $\delta_{k}$ is the number of integers $m\lt k$ such that $M_{m}=M_{k}$.

My question is: has this already been conjectured? If so, could I get some references? Of course, I also welcome any insight.

Thanks in advance.

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Sylvain JULIEN
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I give here a heuristics that suggests that the quantity $\displaystyle{G_{k}:=\liminf_{n\to\infty}p_{n+k}-p_{n}}$ should be approximately equal to $k(1+H_{k})$, where $H_{k}$ is the $k$-th harmonic number. It seems that whenever those two quantities are not exactly equal,$k$ doesn't divide $G_{k}$ then we have $$\dfrac{G_{k}}{k}-(1+H_{k})=-\dfrac{k+\delta_{k}}{M_{k}}$$ where $M_{k}$ is the least common multiple of the first $k$ positive integers, and $\delta_{k}$ is the number of integers $m\lt k$ such that $M_{m}=M_{k}$.

My question is: has this already been conjectured? If so, could I get some references? Of course, I also welcome any insight.

Thanks in advance.

I give here a heuristics that suggests that the quantity $\displaystyle{G_{k}:=\liminf_{n\to\infty}p_{n+k}-p_{n}}$ should be approximately equal to $k(1+H_{k})$, where $H_{k}$ is the $k$-th harmonic number. It seems that whenever those two quantities are not exactly equal, then we have $$\dfrac{G_{k}}{k}-(1+H_{k})=-\dfrac{k+\delta_{k}}{M_{k}}$$ where $M_{k}$ is the least common multiple of the first $k$ positive integers, and $\delta_{k}$ is the number of integers $m\lt k$ such that $M_{m}=M_{k}$.

My question is: has this already been conjectured? If so, could I get some references? Of course, I also welcome any insight.

Thanks in advance.

I give here a heuristics that suggests that the quantity $\displaystyle{G_{k}:=\liminf_{n\to\infty}p_{n+k}-p_{n}}$ should be approximately equal to $k(1+H_{k})$, where $H_{k}$ is the $k$-th harmonic number. It seems that whenever $k$ doesn't divide $G_{k}$ then we have $$\dfrac{G_{k}}{k}-(1+H_{k})=-\dfrac{k+\delta_{k}}{M_{k}}$$ where $M_{k}$ is the least common multiple of the first $k$ positive integers, and $\delta_{k}$ is the number of integers $m\lt k$ such that $M_{m}=M_{k}$.

My question is: has this already been conjectured? If so, could I get some references? Of course, I also welcome any insight.

Thanks in advance.

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Sylvain JULIEN
  • 7k
  • 3
  • 31
  • 66

I give here a heuristics that suggests that the quantity $\displaystyle{G_{k}:=\liminf_{n\to\infty}p_{n+k}-p_{n}}$ should be approximately equal to $k(1+H_{k})$, where $H_{k}$ is the $k$-th harmonic number. It seems that whenever those two quantities are not exactly equal, then we have $$\dfrac{G_{k}}{k}-(1+H_{k})=-\dfrac{k+\delta_{k}}{M_{k}}$$ where $M_{k}$ is the least common multiple of the first $k$ positive integers, and $\delta_{k}$ is the number of integers $m\gt k$$m\lt k$ such that $M_{m}=M_{k}$.

My question is: has this already been conjectured? If so, could I get some references? Of course, I also welcome any insight.

Thanks in advance.

I give here a heuristics that suggests that the quantity $\displaystyle{G_{k}:=\liminf_{n\to\infty}p_{n+k}-p_{n}}$ should be approximately equal to $k(1+H_{k})$, where $H_{k}$ is the $k$-th harmonic number. It seems that whenever those two quantities are not exactly equal, then we have $$\dfrac{G_{k}}{k}-(1+H_{k})=-\dfrac{k+\delta_{k}}{M_{k}}$$ where $M_{k}$ is the least common multiple of the first $k$ positive integers, and $\delta_{k}$ is the number of integers $m\gt k$ such that $M_{m}=M_{k}$.

My question is: has this already been conjectured? If so, could I get some references? Of course, I also welcome any insight.

Thanks in advance.

I give here a heuristics that suggests that the quantity $\displaystyle{G_{k}:=\liminf_{n\to\infty}p_{n+k}-p_{n}}$ should be approximately equal to $k(1+H_{k})$, where $H_{k}$ is the $k$-th harmonic number. It seems that whenever those two quantities are not exactly equal, then we have $$\dfrac{G_{k}}{k}-(1+H_{k})=-\dfrac{k+\delta_{k}}{M_{k}}$$ where $M_{k}$ is the least common multiple of the first $k$ positive integers, and $\delta_{k}$ is the number of integers $m\lt k$ such that $M_{m}=M_{k}$.

My question is: has this already been conjectured? If so, could I get some references? Of course, I also welcome any insight.

Thanks in advance.

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Sylvain JULIEN
  • 7k
  • 3
  • 31
  • 66
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