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Feb 19 at 22:24 comment added Tim Only a comment instead of an answer, but in the introduction of SGA 6 they write that they will use the second formulation because it is "more useful for their needs". I'm not familiar with this part of SGA 6 so I can't say exactly why how this is true, but maybe an answer is to be found there :-)
Apr 26, 2015 at 20:37 comment added A Rock and a Hard Place In fact the Baum-Fulton-MacPhearson Riemann-Roch theory seems to me to be an argument for writing the theorem in the first version, aka. as exhibiting a natural transformation: that is the version that generalizes to nonsingular varieties and even to separated schemes of finite type over a field.
Apr 26, 2015 at 20:33 comment added A Rock and a Hard Place Well, there are ways of defining Todd classes even for singular varieties. One can take the Baum-Fulton-MacPhearson natural transformation $\tau\colon K_0\to A_{\mathbb Q}$ and define the homology Todd class $\tau_X(\mathscr O_X).$ For locally complete intersections in nonsingular varieties that reduces to $\operatorname{td}(\mathscr T_X)\cap [X],$ the Todd class of the virtual tangent bundle capped with the fundamental class. Provided, GRR in the form above fails to hold for these new Todd classes, but still.
Apr 21, 2015 at 6:26 comment added Donu Arapura The second version is also more general. If $X$ or $Y$ are singular, then the terms in first statement are undefined, but $\mathcal{T}_f$ may still be defined, e.g. when $f$ is smooth and proper.
Apr 20, 2015 at 20:36 comment added Will Sawin One reason is just because people may want to compute $ch(f_!a)$ and the second formulation tells you how to do that.
Apr 20, 2015 at 20:17 history asked A Rock and a Hard Place CC BY-SA 3.0