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Timeline for A question on complexity notation

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Apr 25, 2015 at 13:16 comment added Carl Mummert Because every $\Pi^1_n$ formula is $\Delta^2_0$, the comprehension schemes are ordinarily nested. I suppose you could view the latter as "improper" instances of the former scheme. But, to try to make the comprehension schemes disjoint, how would you separate the "properly" $\Pi^2_1$ instances of comprehension from the "improper" ones (making up words). That seems to involve more than just syntactic analysis, while the ordinary definition of the schemes is syntactic. For example, if $\phi$ is $\Pi^1_n$ and $\psi(X^2)$ is logically valid we might consider $(\exists X^2)[\psi(X) \land \phi]$.
Apr 21, 2015 at 21:11 comment added Frode Alfson Bjørdal @Noah S Why would it be unreasonable to have a third order system which only allows $\Pi^{1}_{1}$-comprehension and $\Pi^{2}_{1}$-comprehension? It seems to me that we need not stipulate that the instances of $\Pi^{2}_{1}$-comprehension allowed in the logic comprise all instances of $\Pi^{1}_{n}$-comprehension for $n\geq 1$. I do not see a problem with having such weaker logical systems.
Apr 19, 2015 at 3:54 comment added Frode Alfson Bjørdal That could be. What is the proof?
Apr 19, 2015 at 3:51 review Low quality posts
Apr 19, 2015 at 4:41
Apr 19, 2015 at 3:47 comment added Noah Schweber Wouldn't this be redundant? In any reasonable system, AFAIK, $\Pi^{m+1}_a$-comprehension implies $\Pi^m_b$-comprehension for any $m, b, a$. Or am I missing something?
Apr 18, 2015 at 21:45 history asked Frode Alfson Bjørdal CC BY-SA 3.0