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Jul 28, 2018 at 14:35 review Reopen votes
Jul 28, 2018 at 18:46
Apr 18, 2015 at 17:19 history edited Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 18, 2015 at 15:13 vote accept Sylvain JULIEN
Apr 17, 2015 at 8:53 review Reopen votes
Apr 17, 2015 at 18:15
Apr 17, 2015 at 8:14 history closed Henry Cohn
Lucia
Joonas Ilmavirta
Alex Degtyarev
Dima Pasechnik
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Apr 17, 2015 at 8:13 comment added Dima Pasechnik natural numbers form a probability space, this is all well-understood etc etc. I don't see how this can be not well-founded, unless it's understood in a non-mathematical way.
Apr 17, 2015 at 7:28 history edited Sylvain JULIEN CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 17, 2015 at 6:48 history edited Sylvain JULIEN CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 17, 2015 at 5:54 history edited Sylvain JULIEN CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 17, 2015 at 5:45 history edited Sylvain JULIEN CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 17, 2015 at 1:54 review Close votes
Apr 17, 2015 at 8:15
Apr 17, 2015 at 1:01 answer added Fan Zheng timeline score: 7
Apr 17, 2015 at 0:52 comment added JMP pretty much, it does give a bound though
Apr 17, 2015 at 0:50 comment added Asvin I guess he had a problem with the second part of the statement, we have no idea what the conditional probability of $p+2$ being prime is, given $p$ prime...
Apr 17, 2015 at 0:42 comment added JMP given the set {1,...,n} there are n/log(n) primes in it, according to the Prime Number Theorem. Therefore the chance that you pick a prime is 1/log(n).
Apr 17, 2015 at 0:40 comment added paul garrett @JonMarkPerry, :) the point is that the notion of "probability" of primality is not well-founded, although an extremely intuitive/engaging idea. :) That it is not (at this time in history) something that generates causality, that is, that gives true proof, is disappointing, but a contingent fact.
Apr 17, 2015 at 0:34 comment added JMP @paulgarrett; you mean the first statement is true, the second not so true?
Apr 17, 2015 at 0:31 comment added paul garrett @JonMarkPerry, it's not that I have an objection to your remark, but that the terseness of it might mislead naive people. That is, the ramifications of "true facts" are often subtler than people generally understand, etc. That is, the limits of heuristics are not-at-all widely understood, and, in fact, I do strongly claim, there is no wide-spread procedure for distinguishing good heuristics from bad, etc. Rhyming is not truth. Catchiness is not truth. Yet we do hope (as humans) that such stuff does correctly suggest truth, etc. That's all I meant...
Apr 17, 2015 at 0:26 comment added JMP @paulgarrett; what's wrong with it? - it gives the answer given
Apr 17, 2015 at 0:13 comment added paul garrett @JonMarkPerry, I hope you are being a little bit facetious, or else you are possibly misleading the questioner or other naive souls.
Apr 16, 2015 at 23:41 comment added JMP the probability that n is prime is ~ 1/log(n). The probability that n,n+2 are prime is therefore ~ 1/log(n)^2
Apr 16, 2015 at 23:38 answer added Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen timeline score: 3
Apr 16, 2015 at 22:57 comment added GH from MO The Wikipedia article does not use the word "proof" in that context. So the quotation mark is misleading here. Without the quotation mark, it would be equally misleading, so I suggest you change the first sentence. A more serious problem with your post is that it does not contain a well-formulated mathematical question. To clarify: no proof of Goldbach's conjecture would consider the primes random variables, because they are not random variables.
Apr 16, 2015 at 22:50 history edited Sylvain JULIEN CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 16, 2015 at 22:35 history asked Sylvain JULIEN CC BY-SA 3.0