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Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen
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primes Primes as uncorrelated random variables

In Wikipedia,The heuristic justification section of the article about Goldbach's conjectureWikipedia article about Goldbach's conjecture says that the argument that suggests that the number of twin primes below $x$ should be roughly $\dfrac{x}{\log^{2} x}$ up to a multiplicative constant

the number of twin primes below $x$ should be roughly $\dfrac{x}{\log^{2} x}$ up to a multiplicative constant

is just a heuristics, because of the lack of independencyindependence of the "random" variables"random variables" considered therein. But what if we considered them as just uncorrelateduncorrelated instead of truly independentindependent? 

Could the argument be still used or not? Thanks in advance.

 

Edit: several people have said that the notion of probability here is rather irrelevant, cause the primes form a deterministic system. My question now is thus: in some dynamical system framework, would the set of congruences that are verified in the case of primes force any subset of the positive integers with the same natural density as the one given by the PNT to be the one of a subset of the primes? The idea is to make a random process evolve under constraints until it becomes entirely determined. I apologize for the vagueness of the question, I just try to make my intuitions as 'rigorizable' as possible. To make this more clear, let's consider the double sequence of random variables $X_{i,t}$ with $1\leq i\leq n$ and $t\in\mathbb{N}_{0}$ such that there exists $K_{i,t}>0$ such that $P(X_{i,t}=1)=K_{i,t}\dfrac{\pi(n)}{n}(\prod_{k=1}^{t}(i \mod p_{k}))^{1_{t\gt 0}}$ and$$P(X_{i,t}=1)=K_{i,t}\dfrac{\pi(n)}{n}\left(\prod_{k=1}^{t}(i \mod p_{k})\right)^{1_{t\gt 0}}$$ and $\forall t, \sum_{i=1}^{n}P(X_{i,t}=1)=1$.

primes as uncorrelated random variables

In Wikipedia, the article about Goldbach's conjecture says that the argument that suggests that the number of twin primes below $x$ should be roughly $\dfrac{x}{\log^{2} x}$ up to a multiplicative constant is just a heuristics because of the lack of independency of the "random" variables considered therein. But what if we considered them as just uncorrelated instead of truly independent? Could the argument be still used or not? Thanks in advance.

Edit: several people have said that the notion of probability here is rather irrelevant, cause the primes form a deterministic system. My question now is thus: in some dynamical system framework, would the set of congruences that are verified in the case of primes force any subset of the positive integers with the same natural density as the one given by the PNT to be the one of a subset of the primes? The idea is to make a random process evolve under constraints until it becomes entirely determined. I apologize for the vagueness of the question, I just try to make my intuitions as 'rigorizable' as possible. To make this more clear, let's consider the double sequence of random variables $X_{i,t}$ with $1\leq i\leq n$ and $t\in\mathbb{N}_{0}$ such that there exists $K_{i,t}>0$ such that $P(X_{i,t}=1)=K_{i,t}\dfrac{\pi(n)}{n}(\prod_{k=1}^{t}(i \mod p_{k}))^{1_{t\gt 0}}$ and $\forall t, \sum_{i=1}^{n}P(X_{i,t}=1)=1$.

Primes as uncorrelated random variables

The heuristic justification section of the Wikipedia article about Goldbach's conjecture says that the argument that suggests that

the number of twin primes below $x$ should be roughly $\dfrac{x}{\log^{2} x}$ up to a multiplicative constant

is just heuristics, because of the lack of independence of the "random variables" considered therein. But what if we considered them as just uncorrelated instead of truly independent? 

Could the argument be still used or not?

 

Edit: several people have said that the notion of probability here is rather irrelevant, cause the primes form a deterministic system. My question now is thus: in some dynamical system framework, would the set of congruences that are verified in the case of primes force any subset of the positive integers with the same natural density as the one given by the PNT to be the one of a subset of the primes? The idea is to make a random process evolve under constraints until it becomes entirely determined. I apologize for the vagueness of the question, I just try to make my intuitions as 'rigorizable' as possible. To make this more clear, let's consider the double sequence of random variables $X_{i,t}$ with $1\leq i\leq n$ and $t\in\mathbb{N}_{0}$ such that there exists $K_{i,t}>0$ such that $$P(X_{i,t}=1)=K_{i,t}\dfrac{\pi(n)}{n}\left(\prod_{k=1}^{t}(i \mod p_{k})\right)^{1_{t\gt 0}}$$ and $\forall t, \sum_{i=1}^{n}P(X_{i,t}=1)=1$.

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Sylvain JULIEN
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In Wikipedia, the article about Goldbach's conjecture says that the argument that suggests that the number of twin primes below $x$ is should be roughly $\dfrac{x}{\log^{2} x}$ up to a multiplicative constant is just a heuristics because of the lack of independency of the "random" variables considered therein. But what if we considered them as just uncorrelated instead of truly independent? Could the argument be still used or not? Thanks in advance.

Edit: several people have said that the notion of probability here is rather irrelevant, cause the primes form a deterministic system. My question now is thus: in some dynamical system framework, would the set of congruences that are verified in the case of primes force any subset of the positive integers with the same natural density as the one given by the PNT to be the one of a subset of the primes? The idea is to make a random process evolve under constraints until it becomes entirely determined. I apologize for the vagueness of the question, I just try to make my intuitions as 'rigorizable' as possible. To make this more clear, let's consider the double sequence of random variables $X_{i,t}$ with $1\leq i\leq n$ and $t\in\mathbb{N}_{0}$ such that there exists $K_{i,t}>0$ such that $P(X_{i,t}=1)=K_{i,t}\dfrac{\pi(n)}{n}(\prod_{k=1}^{t}(i \mod p_{k}))^{1_{t\gt 0}}$ and $\forall t, \sum_{i=1}^{n}P(X_{i,t})=1$$\forall t, \sum_{i=1}^{n}P(X_{i,t}=1)=1$.

In Wikipedia, the article about Goldbach's conjecture says that the argument that suggests that the number of twin primes below $x$ is should be roughly $\dfrac{x}{\log^{2} x}$ up to a multiplicative constant is just a heuristics because of the lack of independency of the "random" variables considered therein. But what if we considered them as just uncorrelated instead of truly independent? Could the argument be still used or not? Thanks in advance.

Edit: several people have said that the notion of probability here is rather irrelevant, cause the primes form a deterministic system. My question now is thus: in some dynamical system framework, would the set of congruences that are verified in the case of primes force any subset of the positive integers with the same natural density as the one given by the PNT to be the one of a subset of the primes? The idea is to make a random process evolve under constraints until it becomes entirely determined. I apologize for the vagueness of the question, I just try to make my intuitions as 'rigorizable' as possible. To make this more clear, let's consider the double sequence of random variables $X_{i,t}$ with $1\leq i\leq n$ and $t\in\mathbb{N}_{0}$ such that there exists $K_{i,t}>0$ such that $P(X_{i,t}=1)=K_{i,t}\dfrac{\pi(n)}{n}(\prod_{k=1}^{t}(i \mod p_{k}))^{1_{t\gt 0}}$ and $\forall t, \sum_{i=1}^{n}P(X_{i,t})=1$.

In Wikipedia, the article about Goldbach's conjecture says that the argument that suggests that the number of twin primes below $x$ should be roughly $\dfrac{x}{\log^{2} x}$ up to a multiplicative constant is just a heuristics because of the lack of independency of the "random" variables considered therein. But what if we considered them as just uncorrelated instead of truly independent? Could the argument be still used or not? Thanks in advance.

Edit: several people have said that the notion of probability here is rather irrelevant, cause the primes form a deterministic system. My question now is thus: in some dynamical system framework, would the set of congruences that are verified in the case of primes force any subset of the positive integers with the same natural density as the one given by the PNT to be the one of a subset of the primes? The idea is to make a random process evolve under constraints until it becomes entirely determined. I apologize for the vagueness of the question, I just try to make my intuitions as 'rigorizable' as possible. To make this more clear, let's consider the double sequence of random variables $X_{i,t}$ with $1\leq i\leq n$ and $t\in\mathbb{N}_{0}$ such that there exists $K_{i,t}>0$ such that $P(X_{i,t}=1)=K_{i,t}\dfrac{\pi(n)}{n}(\prod_{k=1}^{t}(i \mod p_{k}))^{1_{t\gt 0}}$ and $\forall t, \sum_{i=1}^{n}P(X_{i,t}=1)=1$.

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Sylvain JULIEN
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In Wikipedia, the article about Goldbach's conjecture says that the argument that suggests that the number of twin primes below $x$ is should be roughly $\dfrac{x}{\log^{2} x}$ up to a multiplicative constant is just a heuristics because of the lack of independency of the "random" variables considered therein. But what if we considered them as just uncorrelated instead of truly independent? Could the argument be still used or not? Thanks in advance.

Edit: several people have said that the notion of probability here is rather irrelevant, cause the primes form a deterministic system. My question now is thus: in some dynamical system framework, would the set of congruences that are verified in the case of primes force any subset of the positive integers with the same natural density as the one given by the PNT to be the one of a subset of the primes? The idea is to make a random process evolve under constraints until it becomes entirely determined. I apologize for the vagueness of the question, I just try to make my intuitions as 'rigorizable' as possible. To make this more clear, let's consider the double sequence of random variables $X_{i,t}$ with $1\leq i\leq n$ and $t\in\mathbb{N}_{0}$ such that there exists $K_{i,t}>0$ such that $P(X_{i,t}=1)=K_{i,t}\dfrac{\pi(n)}{n}(\prod_{k=1}^{t}(i \mod p_{k}))^{1_{t\gt 0}}$ and $\forall t, \sum_{i=1}^{n}P(X_{i,t})=1$.

In Wikipedia, the article about Goldbach's conjecture says that the argument that suggests that the number of twin primes below $x$ is should be roughly $\dfrac{x}{\log^{2} x}$ up to a multiplicative constant is just a heuristics because of the lack of independency of the "random" variables considered therein. But what if we considered them as just uncorrelated instead of truly independent? Could the argument be still used or not? Thanks in advance.

Edit: several people have said that the notion of probability here is rather irrelevant, cause the primes form a deterministic system. My question now is thus: in some dynamical system framework, would the set of congruences that are verified in the case of primes force any subset of the positive integers with the same natural density as the one given by the PNT to be the one of a subset of the primes? The idea is to make a random process evolve under constraints until it becomes entirely determined. I apologize for the vagueness of the question, I just try to make my intuitions as 'rigorizable' as possible.

In Wikipedia, the article about Goldbach's conjecture says that the argument that suggests that the number of twin primes below $x$ is should be roughly $\dfrac{x}{\log^{2} x}$ up to a multiplicative constant is just a heuristics because of the lack of independency of the "random" variables considered therein. But what if we considered them as just uncorrelated instead of truly independent? Could the argument be still used or not? Thanks in advance.

Edit: several people have said that the notion of probability here is rather irrelevant, cause the primes form a deterministic system. My question now is thus: in some dynamical system framework, would the set of congruences that are verified in the case of primes force any subset of the positive integers with the same natural density as the one given by the PNT to be the one of a subset of the primes? The idea is to make a random process evolve under constraints until it becomes entirely determined. I apologize for the vagueness of the question, I just try to make my intuitions as 'rigorizable' as possible. To make this more clear, let's consider the double sequence of random variables $X_{i,t}$ with $1\leq i\leq n$ and $t\in\mathbb{N}_{0}$ such that there exists $K_{i,t}>0$ such that $P(X_{i,t}=1)=K_{i,t}\dfrac{\pi(n)}{n}(\prod_{k=1}^{t}(i \mod p_{k}))^{1_{t\gt 0}}$ and $\forall t, \sum_{i=1}^{n}P(X_{i,t})=1$.

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