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Nov 4, 2009 at 20:59 comment added Ilya Nikokoshev Great way to say it indeed.
Nov 4, 2009 at 4:09 comment added Ori Gurel-Gurevich Just rephrasing your argument: One can partition the 2-dim simplex, defined by x>=0, y>=0, z>=, x+y+z=1 into 4 identical triangles defined by adding the conditions: 1) x>=&frac12; 2) y>=&frac12; 3) z>=&frac12; 4) x<=&frac12; and y<=&frac12; and z<=&frac12; of which the 4th is the event that you can form a triangle.
Oct 23, 2009 at 15:59 history edited Ilya Nikokoshev CC BY-SA 2.5
corrected
Oct 23, 2009 at 15:57 comment added Ilya Nikokoshev Yes, you were right to point my mistake. The geometric picture is correct, but I referred to it incorrectly. Will edit.
Oct 23, 2009 at 4:35 comment added Kevin P. Costello "First, the way you define the probability, because of the symmetry (sic!) it's equivalent to first choosing first point a uniformly and then second point b uniformly on [a, 1]." I don't think that this is the case. In the original problem, the probability that there was a piece longer than 1-epsilon decayed like C/epsilon^2 as epsilon tended to 0 (a necessary condition is that no cut lies in (epsilon, 1-epsilon). In your model, it decays like c/epsilon (a sufficient condition is to have A larger than 1-ep).
Oct 23, 2009 at 3:57 history answered Ilya Nikokoshev CC BY-SA 2.5