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Apr 12, 2015 at 22:52 history closed Alex Degtyarev
David Roberts
Stefan Kohl
Dima Pasechnik
Andreas Blass
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Apr 12, 2015 at 20:50 comment added YCor I guess that you mean "epimorphism" in the categorical sense (some people use it for "surjective homomorphism", which is stronger since the ring homomorphism $\mathbf{Z}\to\mathbf{Q}$ is a non-surjective epimorphism). An ambiguity is on what you call "ring": associative? commutative? there are people on mathOverflow using various conventions.
Apr 12, 2015 at 19:16 answer added tj_ timeline score: 2
Apr 12, 2015 at 19:13 answer added Todd Trimble timeline score: 5
Apr 12, 2015 at 18:25 comment added Paul Taylor If this is so trivial it ought to have a rigorous proof. Why shouldn't the dimension of $A$ over $K$ be infinite?
Apr 12, 2015 at 17:40 review Close votes
Apr 12, 2015 at 22:56
Apr 12, 2015 at 17:31 comment added Todd Trimble The typical way to approach this is to consider the pair of maps $i_1, i_2: A \to A \otimes_K A$ where $i_1(a) = a \otimes 1$ and $i_2(a) = 1 \otimes a$, show their restrictions along $K \to A$ agree, and show $i_1, i_2$ disagree if the dimension of $A$ as a vector space over $K$ is greater than 1.
Apr 12, 2015 at 17:28 comment added Alex Degtyarev Yes, it is necessary, unless $A=0$. Not appropriate for this site.
Apr 12, 2015 at 17:25 review First posts
Apr 12, 2015 at 17:28
Apr 12, 2015 at 17:23 history asked stupidq75 CC BY-SA 3.0