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Apr 4, 2015 at 3:22 comment added Christian Remling @JamesPropp: This part is NOT vague: I'm describing a simple algorithm how to find the $\mu_j$, $\nu_j$ that you require to check that $\mu\sim\nu$. After the initial steps ($\nu_1=\delta_0+(1/2)\delta_3$, $\nu_2=(1/2)\delta_1$), I next obtain $\nu_3=(1/2)(\delta_1+\delta_5)$, $\nu_4=\delta_3$. The next two would be $\nu_5=(1/2)(\delta_3+\delta_7)$, $\nu_6=\delta_5$ etc., and of course you could state this as a general formula if you prefer, so I've defined all $\nu_j$. I've also simultaneously defined $\mu_j$'s with the required properties.
Apr 4, 2015 at 3:21 comment added James Propp Thanks for providing more details! However, I am still not convinced. The part of the argument that I'd like to see elaborated is "So I can continue indefinitely in this style". Applying the move an indefinite but finite number of steps is fine; but it is not clear that performing the operation infinitely many times keeps one in the same $\approx$ equivalence class. To justify this one needs to show that the sequence of measures converges in the total variation metric, and that does not seem to be the case here.
Apr 3, 2015 at 17:49 history edited Christian Remling CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 3, 2015 at 17:26 history edited Christian Remling CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 3, 2015 at 17:20 history edited Christian Remling CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 3, 2015 at 2:00 history answered Christian Remling CC BY-SA 3.0