Timeline for If $(X_n+Y_n)$ has bounded variance, is the same true for $(X_n)$ and $(Y_n)$? [closed]
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
11 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jan 12, 2016 at 2:59 | history | edited | Yemon Choi | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
improved formatting
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| Apr 1, 2015 at 12:14 | history | closed |
Alex Degtyarev Douglas Zare Emil Jeřábek Joonas Ilmavirta Chris Godsil |
Not suitable for this site | |
| Apr 1, 2015 at 10:53 | comment | added | herrsimon | @AlexDegtyarev You're right, thank you! | |
| Apr 1, 2015 at 10:53 | vote | accept | herrsimon | ||
| Apr 1, 2015 at 10:49 | comment | added | Alex Degtyarev | This doesn't help: you can always take $X_n=\text{nice}+\text{anything}$ and $Y_n=-\text{anything}$. | |
| Apr 1, 2015 at 10:42 | comment | added | herrsimon | @AlexDegtyarev No, I forgot to state this in my original question and have just updated it. | |
| Apr 1, 2015 at 10:41 | history | edited | herrsimon | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 16 characters in body
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| Apr 1, 2015 at 10:37 | comment | added | Alex Degtyarev | Can you have $Y_n=-X_n$? | |
| Apr 1, 2015 at 10:33 | answer | added | Hachino | timeline score: 0 | |
| Apr 1, 2015 at 10:26 | review | Close votes | |||
| Apr 1, 2015 at 12:14 | |||||
| Apr 1, 2015 at 10:04 | history | asked | herrsimon | CC BY-SA 3.0 |