Timeline for Can the Category of Schemes be Concretized?
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
13 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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May 16, 2019 at 12:58 | comment | added | user138661 | @TheoJohnson-Freyd interesting. I think that "concrete category" should not mean anything, and what you say should be conveyed by "concretizable category". Though I am not really sure what other people think. | |
Mar 18, 2014 at 19:37 | answer | added | Zhen Lin | timeline score: 25 | |
Mar 11, 2014 at 2:40 | answer | added | Tim Campion | timeline score: 7 | |
Sep 10, 2013 at 2:29 | answer | added | Todd Trimble | timeline score: 7 | |
Oct 27, 2009 at 2:35 | vote | accept | Dinakar Muthiah | ||
Oct 26, 2009 at 10:59 | answer | added | David E Speyer | timeline score: 22 | |
Oct 23, 2009 at 17:45 | answer | added | David E Speyer | timeline score: 5 | |
Oct 23, 2009 at 7:41 | answer | added | Tom Leinster | timeline score: 12 | |
Oct 23, 2009 at 4:55 | comment | added | Theo Johnson-Freyd | @Tom: I think "concretized" is a great word. The "concrete category" should mean "category equipped with a faithful functor to SET", rather than the existence of such a thing. | |
Oct 23, 2009 at 4:34 | answer | added | Charles Siegel | timeline score: 0 | |
Oct 23, 2009 at 2:50 | comment | added | Dinakar Muthiah | Yup, that's exactly what I mean. | |
Oct 23, 2009 at 2:45 | comment | added | Tom Leinster | Can you define "concretized"? It's not a common term in category theory. Sometimes people call a category concrete if there exists (or if it comes equipped with) a faithful functor to the category of sets. But usage varies. | |
Oct 23, 2009 at 2:37 | history | asked | Dinakar Muthiah | CC BY-SA 2.5 |