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May 20, 2015 at 8:37 vote accept tam
Mar 28, 2015 at 13:27 comment added tam Sorry, it's $c-a$ instead of $a$, and $\frac{1+\epsilon}{2}$ instead of $\epsilon$.
Mar 28, 2015 at 13:05 comment added tam I probably found the answer: $-x$ is an accurate approximation of $\frac{x}{x-1}$ for $0<x<0.1$. Thus, using the Maclaurin series of $_2F_1(a,b;c;-x)$, we get $1-x+... $ which can be approximated to $1-x$ since the coefficient of $x^2$ is $\frac{1}{2}\frac{(d+1)(K+1)}{Kd+1}\approx$ $1+\epsilon$ (with $\epsilon$ very small ) and $x^2 \ll$ $x$..
Mar 28, 2015 at 0:12 comment added Robert Israel That's a series in powers of $x/(x-1)$. And what do you get when you express it as a series in powers of $x$?
Mar 27, 2015 at 23:30 comment added tam Yes, but $(1-x)^b \, _2F_1(a,b;c;x)= \, _2F_1(c-a,b;c;\frac{x}{x-1})$ using Pfaff transformation.
Mar 27, 2015 at 16:48 comment added Robert Israel Note that this series is not for the hypergeometric itself, but for $h(x)$ which is $(1-x)^K$ times the hypergeometric.
Mar 27, 2015 at 16:03 comment added tam Please see eq. (16) in this link
Mar 27, 2015 at 15:35 comment added Robert Israel I'm pretty sure these formulas, which were obtained with the help of Maple, do involve the correct use of Pochhammer symbols.
Mar 27, 2015 at 9:45 comment added tam I think you have to use the rising Pochhammer symbol for Hypergeometric functions. In detail, in the first expression you should replace $d-i$ and $K-i$ by $d+i$ and $K+i$, respectively.
Mar 26, 2015 at 19:34 history edited Robert Israel CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 26, 2015 at 19:23 history edited Robert Israel CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 26, 2015 at 18:26 history edited Robert Israel CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 26, 2015 at 18:03 history answered Robert Israel CC BY-SA 3.0