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Mar 15, 2015 at 18:30 comment added vzn thx for further attn however afaik collatz implies the "fall below" property highlighted in the question for an infinite # of cases but not vice versa as your answer seems to assert. but the strict formulation of the property is more found in the followup comments. suggest/ encourage further discussion/ clarification in number theory chat
Mar 15, 2015 at 12:50 history answered Gottfried Helms CC BY-SA 3.0