Timeline for Why is the first chern class of a line bundle $c_1(L) = 1-L$ in complex K-theory?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Oct 20, 2019 at 21:07 | comment | added | jdc | @OscarRandal-Williams: Do you have an idea about the reasons behind these conventions? I've never understood the choice to dualize; I've just seen it in most sources essentially as "now take the dual" without further explanation. Does something work out better with this convention? | |
| Mar 17, 2015 at 19:06 | vote | accept | Catherine Ray | ||
| Mar 17, 2015 at 8:27 | comment | added | Oscar Randal-Williams | You are right, I messed up the dualisation. I think it is right now. | |
| Mar 17, 2015 at 8:25 | history | edited | Oscar Randal-Williams | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 55 characters in body
|
| Mar 17, 2015 at 0:24 | comment | added | Catherine Ray | $0 \to \land^0\pi^*L \to \land^1\pi^*L \to 0$ is $0 \to \underline{\mathbb{C}} \to \pi^*L \to 0$. I would think that taking the linear dual would then be $0 \to \pi^*L^* \to \underline{\mathbb{C}} \to 0$. Did you mean that we should take the dual of $0 \to \land^0\pi^*L^* \to \land^1\pi^*L^* \to 0$? | |
| Mar 15, 2015 at 15:58 | history | edited | Oscar Randal-Williams | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 2 characters in body
|
| Mar 14, 2015 at 23:56 | history | answered | Oscar Randal-Williams | CC BY-SA 3.0 |