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Jul 31 at 17:10 comment added No-one The only thing I know for sure is that $L:Z\to \mathbb{R}$ can never be a measurable map with respect to the product $\sigma$-algebra on $Z$, since if it were then it would be $L((x_t)_{t\in[0,\infty)})=L((x_{t_k})_{k\in \mathbb{N}})$ for some sequence $(t_k)$, which is clearly not the case since $L$ is independent of the value of $x$ on any fixed sequence of times.
Jul 31 at 17:10 comment added No-one I know it is a very old question but I have just got stuck at exact same point as you. Do you perhaps have an answer after all these years? I've realised you posted a follow up question here, but unfortunately I do not see how to use its answer in the present setting.
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:57 history edited CommunityBot
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Jun 27, 2015 at 17:28 history edited Julian Newman CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 27, 2015 at 17:16 history edited Julian Newman CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 16, 2015 at 1:29 history edited Julian Newman CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 16, 2015 at 1:17 history edited Julian Newman CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 10, 2015 at 13:35 history edited Julian Newman CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 10, 2015 at 4:02 history edited Julian Newman CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 10, 2015 at 3:32 history asked Julian Newman CC BY-SA 3.0