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Mar 15, 2015 at 20:55 history edited user66638 CC BY-SA 3.0
edited title
Mar 10, 2015 at 17:31 comment added j.c. Could the title be perhaps made more specific?
Mar 9, 2015 at 20:02 history edited user66638 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 8, 2015 at 16:17 answer added MrSelberg timeline score: 2
Mar 8, 2015 at 5:21 answer added Christian Remling timeline score: 1
Mar 7, 2015 at 18:33 comment added Christian Remling Yes, I was confused, obviously the quotient is $\simeq 1$ for small intervals.
Mar 7, 2015 at 8:16 comment added user66638 "Then your quotient \sim 1/L", this looks false @ Christian. Indeed in that case it is \sim 1 namely \int_0^p e^{i L s} ds= {-((i (-1 + e^{i L p))}/L)}
Mar 6, 2015 at 18:32 history asked user66638 CC BY-SA 3.0