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Mar 29, 2015 at 19:11 history edited Hannes Thiel CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 6, 2015 at 16:48 answer added Bill Johnson timeline score: 6
Mar 2, 2015 at 8:53 vote accept Hannes Thiel
Feb 28, 2015 at 13:33 answer added Bill Johnson timeline score: 14
Feb 26, 2015 at 17:49 comment added Yemon Choi @MatthewDaws Thanks - I was just going to email you in case you hadn't seen this question! I agree that $B(X,X^{**})$ is the more natural object to look at.
Feb 26, 2015 at 8:53 comment added Matthew Daws @YemonChoi: I would look at $B(X,X^{**})$ instead of $B(X^*)$, then we're asking if the ball of $B(X,X)$ is weak$^*$-dense in the ball of $B(X,X^{**})$. The PLR shows that this is true for finite-rank operators; and the metric approximation property allows you to reduce from all operators to just the finite-rank ones. If $X$ is reflexive, then there is nothing to prove. What I don't see is how to combine these two rather different viewpoints...!
Feb 26, 2015 at 8:15 comment added weather Just a wee comment on the sentence on ll. 11, 12.$B(X)$ can only be a dual space if the same is true for $X$. The standard reference for the kind of question you are asking is Grothendieck's Resumé.
Feb 25, 2015 at 20:09 comment added Yemon Choi This starts to feel like it has something do with the principle of local reflexvity...
Feb 25, 2015 at 20:03 comment added Yemon Choi [deleted over-hasty comment; will think more]
Feb 25, 2015 at 19:46 history asked Hannes Thiel CC BY-SA 3.0