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Apr 1, 2010 at 10:46 answer added Lennart Meier timeline score: 5
Mar 31, 2010 at 0:00 answer added shenghao timeline score: 8
Mar 30, 2010 at 19:20 history edited Sean Tilson CC BY-SA 2.5
edited basic section
Mar 30, 2010 at 18:10 comment added Kevin H. Lin Despite the first sentence, this is a question.
Mar 30, 2010 at 18:07 answer added Kevin H. Lin timeline score: 14
Mar 30, 2010 at 17:50 comment added Kim Morrison I've tagged as big-list and set as community-wiki, per the discussions at tea.mathoverflow.net/discussion/100 and tea.mathoverflow.net/discussion/247.
Mar 30, 2010 at 17:49 history edited Kim Morrison
tagging big-list and setting as community-wiki; Post Made Community Wiki
Mar 30, 2010 at 17:47 history edited Bo Peng
edited tags
Mar 30, 2010 at 17:23 comment added S. Carnahan Sorry, I'm voting to close. Reason: not a real question (cf. your first sentence).
Mar 30, 2010 at 17:05 history edited Bo Peng CC BY-SA 2.5
added 2 characters in body
Mar 30, 2010 at 16:05 comment added Regenbogen Theoretically, one can use the de Rham theorem and deform the manifold to some other space that is homotopy equivalent to this space, and compute the cohomology of that. Like, all contractible spaces have the cohomology of the point, or the punctured plane and the circle has the same cohomology. This is not a formal machinery; so I am leaving this trivial observation as a comment.
Mar 30, 2010 at 15:56 history asked Bo Peng CC BY-SA 2.5