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Feb 27, 2015 at 14:32 vote accept ali elgindi
Feb 24, 2015 at 13:35 comment added Allen Hatcher On the other hand, if you wish to allow only homotopies $f_t$ and $g_t$ such that $f_t=g_t$ on $S^2$ for all $t$, then such pairs $(f,g)$ are equivalent to maps $h:S^3\to X$. Homotopy classes of maps $h:S^3\to X$ without basepoint conditions are in one-to-one correspondence with orbits of the action of $\pi_1(X)$ on $\pi_3(X)$, and this set of orbits can be nontrivial.
Feb 24, 2015 at 13:23 comment added Allen Hatcher If you do not require $f=g$ on $S^2$ during homotopies, then the problem becomes trivial since every map $B^3\to X$ is homotopic to a constant map. Since we may assume $X$ is path-connected, this means $f$ and $g$ are homotopic.
Feb 24, 2015 at 12:13 comment added ali elgindi Thank you very much for your help Professor Hatcher. Your books were an excellent guide during my topology classes and great reference books for the (budding) research mathematician. I understand now that homotopies of maps $B^3 \rightarrow X$ which are all fixed along the boundary $S^2$ by a specific map is equivalent to $\pi_3 (M)$. In my problem, I have two specific maps $f,g:B^3 \rightarrow X$ that agree along the boundary. All I need is that they are homotopic, not necessarily through maps all agreeing along the boundary. Would this relaxed condition make a difference? @AllenHatcher
Feb 23, 2015 at 14:00 history answered Allen Hatcher CC BY-SA 3.0