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Timeline for Translates of null sets

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Feb 27, 2015 at 3:20 answer added Paul Larson timeline score: 8
Feb 23, 2015 at 21:42 answer added fedja timeline score: 22
Feb 22, 2015 at 10:09 comment added Pietro Majer If the countable set A is given, that's equivalent to: "there exists a maximum null set", which is obviously false...
Feb 22, 2015 at 8:42 comment added Mario Carneiro @bof Ah, now I see I misread Null's question as "there exists a countable set $A$ of translations of $N$ such that every null set is a subset of $N+x$ for some $x\in A$", which is much weaker but also not obvious. Indeed "covered by" implies that you are taking unions, and I guess the countable set is not specified in advance, so actually it is the same question.
Feb 22, 2015 at 7:01 comment added bof @MohammadGolshani: Was that comment addressed to me? If so, what is your point? It suffices that every $G_\delta$ null set is covered by the union of countably many translates of $N$, and there are only continuum many $G_\delta$ null sets. The fact that there are many more null sets seems irrelevant.
Feb 22, 2015 at 6:54 comment added bof @MarioCarneiro: I am mystified. What's the difference between "every null set is covered by countably many translates of N" (Null's question) and "every null set is a subset of a countable union of translates of N" (the question I asked)?
Feb 22, 2015 at 5:55 comment added Mario Carneiro @bof It is not obvious to me that a nullset $N$ whose closure under subsets, countable unions, and all (uncountably many) translates induces a nullset $N'$ such that the same is true with only subsets and countably many translates.
Feb 22, 2015 at 2:23 comment added bof @MarioCarneiro Looks like the same question to me. What is the difference?
Feb 22, 2015 at 1:44 comment added Mario Carneiro @Ashutosh The idea I had in mind was to use that $aC+b$ has measure zero in the measure on $C$ for almost all $a$. (I'm sure the esteemed folks here can much more easily tell if this is false or useless, though.)
Feb 22, 2015 at 1:40 comment added Mario Carneiro @bof This question is actually quite a bit weaker than the version you asked me at MSE, which allows all translates of $N$, and allows countable unions as well. My proof sketch should apply here, if the gaps are fixable.
Feb 21, 2015 at 22:25 comment added Pietro Majer I was vaguely thinking to Hausdorff measures w.r.to gauge functions. One needs to know that, given $N$, there is $\phi=o(t)$ (for $t\to0$) such that $H^\phi(N)=0$. So there is still room for a $\psi$, $\phi(t)<\psi(t)<t$ such that there are strict inclusions of the classes of null sets of $H^\phi\subset H^\psi\subset H^1$ (Some close claim is made here en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hausdorff_measure#Generalizations)
Feb 21, 2015 at 21:56 comment added Ashutosh Hi Pietro, Could you elaborate a little on how you intend to construct N'? Thanks.
Feb 21, 2015 at 21:55 comment added bof This answer (to a somewhat different question) on Math Stack Exchange sketches what is claimed to be a proof that no such $N$ exists.
S Feb 21, 2015 at 21:41 history suggested Sheman
The answer may well be independent of ZFC
Feb 21, 2015 at 21:31 review Suggested edits
S Feb 21, 2015 at 21:41
Feb 21, 2015 at 21:14 comment added Pietro Majer I don't think so. Given a Lebesgue null $N$, I think there is another Lebesgue null set $N'$ and a translation invariant measure $\mu$ such that $\mu(N)=0$ and $\mu(N')>0$.
Feb 21, 2015 at 21:01 history edited Joonas Ilmavirta CC BY-SA 3.0
This question is not about set theory.
Feb 21, 2015 at 20:42 review First posts
Feb 21, 2015 at 20:46
Feb 21, 2015 at 20:40 history asked Null CC BY-SA 3.0