A picture is in the comments to John Baez' Blog Post. EDIT For the second part of the question, no there is no obstruction, as long as the implied angle ($2\pi/v$) is smaller than the angle of a Euclidean regular $n$-gon. This is true by an obvious argument I had originally heard from Bill Thurston: a very small hyperbolic regular $n$-gon has angles close to Euclidean, a very large regular hyperbolic $n$-gon has angles $0$ so, by continuity, somewhere in between you will have the angle you want.
