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Bumped by Community user
Bumped by Community user
Bumped by Community user
Bumped by Community user
Bumped by Community user
Bumped by Community user
Bumped by Community user
changed bracket notation around the expectation
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lkdo
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I am wondering if the following expression can be processed a bit analytically, $$ E \left< e^{aX} \int_0^X e^{bu}dW(u)\right>, $$$$ E \left[ e^{aX} \int_0^X e^{bu}dW(u)\right], $$ where $W_u$ is the normal Brownian motion (1D Wiener process), and $X$ is a random variable.

I know that $E \left< \int_0^T e^{bu}dW(u)\right>$$E \left[ \int_0^T e^{bu}dW(u)\right]$ is zero, so $E \left< \int_0^X e^{bu}dW(u)\right>$$E \left[ \int_0^X e^{bu}dW(u)\right]$ should also be zero. However $e^{aX}$ and $\int_0^X e^{bu}dW(u)$ are clearly correlated, so the expectation of their product is not trivial.

I am wondering if the following expression can be processed a bit analytically, $$ E \left< e^{aX} \int_0^X e^{bu}dW(u)\right>, $$ where $W_u$ is the normal Brownian motion (1D Wiener process), and $X$ is a random variable.

I know that $E \left< \int_0^T e^{bu}dW(u)\right>$ is zero, so $E \left< \int_0^X e^{bu}dW(u)\right>$ should also be zero. However $e^{aX}$ and $\int_0^X e^{bu}dW(u)$ are clearly correlated, so the expectation of their product is not trivial.

I am wondering if the following expression can be processed a bit analytically, $$ E \left[ e^{aX} \int_0^X e^{bu}dW(u)\right], $$ where $W_u$ is the normal Brownian motion (1D Wiener process), and $X$ is a random variable.

I know that $E \left[ \int_0^T e^{bu}dW(u)\right]$ is zero, so $E \left[ \int_0^X e^{bu}dW(u)\right]$ should also be zero. However $e^{aX}$ and $\int_0^X e^{bu}dW(u)$ are clearly correlated, so the expectation of their product is not trivial.

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lkdo
  • 41
  • 4

Expected value of a stochastic integral expression

I am wondering if the following expression can be processed a bit analytically, $$ E \left< e^{aX} \int_0^X e^{bu}dW(u)\right>, $$ where $W_u$ is the normal Brownian motion (1D Wiener process), and $X$ is a random variable.

I know that $E \left< \int_0^T e^{bu}dW(u)\right>$ is zero, so $E \left< \int_0^X e^{bu}dW(u)\right>$ should also be zero. However $e^{aX}$ and $\int_0^X e^{bu}dW(u)$ are clearly correlated, so the expectation of their product is not trivial.