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Feb 27, 2015 at 2:53 vote accept Pengfei
Feb 20, 2015 at 2:42 comment added Victor Kleptsyn Ah yes, indeed. Nice, I did not know that it can be done that simply!
Feb 20, 2015 at 2:40 comment added Pengfei Thanks for your comments. Here $m$ is the Lebesgue measure. I used $\mu_f$ for the invariant measure.
Feb 20, 2015 at 2:30 comment added Victor Kleptsyn 0) The conclusion is correct: indeed, at least in C^1-regularity the Lyapunov exponent vanishes. 1) But you should be more careful: $D_x f^n$ is the derivative of $f^n$ in the sense of the Lebesgue measure, and you are integrating it w.r.t. the invariant one, dm(x). I do not see an immediate way to say that the integral is then equal to 1.
Feb 20, 2015 at 1:57 history answered Pengfei CC BY-SA 3.0