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Jan 24, 2020 at 21:13 answer added Denis Serre timeline score: 2
Feb 25, 2015 at 21:26 vote accept Vamsi
Feb 14, 2015 at 20:34 comment added Suvrit @Vamsi: this looks like an interesting question. May I ask where it arose?
Feb 14, 2015 at 20:31 answer added Suvrit timeline score: 9
Feb 13, 2015 at 18:44 comment added Robert Israel @ChristianRemling Why would scaling be a problem? Positive (semi)-definiteness is scale-invariant.
Feb 13, 2015 at 18:08 comment added Vamsi Indeed. I corrected that.
Feb 13, 2015 at 18:08 history edited Vamsi CC BY-SA 3.0
added 5 characters in body
S Feb 13, 2015 at 18:01 history edited Christian Remling CC BY-SA 3.0
Added relevant tag
S Feb 13, 2015 at 18:01 history suggested Tadashi
Added relevant tag
Feb 13, 2015 at 17:55 comment added Tadashi I think you meant tf(A) + (1-t)f(B) - f(tA+(1-t)B) positive semi-definite $\forall t \in [0,1]$, right?
Feb 13, 2015 at 17:53 review Suggested edits
S Feb 13, 2015 at 18:01
Feb 13, 2015 at 16:24 history asked Vamsi CC BY-SA 3.0