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Feb 14, 2015 at 0:36 vote accept Algebraic Pavel
Feb 12, 2015 at 22:25 comment added Algebraic Pavel Ok I understand it now (at least from the "qualitative" point of view). As $\cos(\alpha)\approx 1$ the error of the inverse tangent formula is essentially determined by the error of the norm of the cross product which is of the order $\delta$.
Feb 12, 2015 at 22:13 comment added Algebraic Pavel Thank you for the input. Although it still a bit puzzles me because the cosine is also involved in the second approach.
Feb 12, 2015 at 20:53 history answered Robert Israel CC BY-SA 3.0