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Feb 14, 2015 at 16:37 answer added Danila Zaev timeline score: 1
Feb 14, 2015 at 16:36 comment added Danila Zaev You are right, thank you. I got confused exactly at this point.
Feb 13, 2015 at 20:54 comment added Jesse Peterson Yes, but that is what is unclear to me. How are you associating a finite-additive probability measure on $X \times Y$ to a bi-normal functional on $N \otimes_{max} M^o$? I think this is where the confusion lies.
Feb 13, 2015 at 15:31 comment added Danila Zaev I'm apologize for an inaccurate formulation. Of course, I mean that with any binormal state we can associate some set function of the specified type, but, as follows from the Connes' assertion, not every such set function corresponds to a binormal state.
Feb 12, 2015 at 18:43 comment added Jesse Peterson I'm not so sure about your last paragraph. Are you sure this is the association given by the Riesz representation theorem?
Feb 12, 2015 at 16:29 history edited Danila Zaev CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 12, 2015 at 15:51 history edited Danila Zaev CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 12, 2015 at 15:33 history edited Danila Zaev CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 12, 2015 at 15:14 review First posts
Feb 12, 2015 at 15:44
Feb 12, 2015 at 15:12 history asked Danila Zaev CC BY-SA 3.0