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Feb 6, 2015 at 22:20 vote accept Aliveli
Feb 6, 2015 at 22:20 vote accept Aliveli
Feb 6, 2015 at 22:20
Feb 6, 2015 at 3:12 vote accept Aliveli
Feb 6, 2015 at 22:20
Feb 4, 2015 at 15:54 answer added Nate Eldredge timeline score: 3
Feb 4, 2015 at 15:07 answer added Gerald Edgar timeline score: 2
Feb 4, 2015 at 14:50 answer added user3429697 timeline score: 0
Feb 4, 2015 at 14:23 comment added Aliveli Yes, I should have clearly stated that $g(\cdot) \ge 0$. Otherwise, based on the counterexamples you suggested the assertion is not necessarily true. Yemon, can you elaborate more about using the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality? My understanding is that one can show $E[X^2g(X)]\ge(E[Xg(X)^{1/2}])^2$. However, this is not exactly what I need.
Feb 4, 2015 at 14:22 history edited Aliveli CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 4, 2015 at 4:19 comment added Nate Eldredge And if you don't require $g \ge 0$ then this is false, even in the discrete case. Let $X = \pm 1$ with probability 1/2 each (the Rademacher distribution) and let $g(x) = x$ on $[-1,1]$ (you can extend it to a smooth bounded function on $\mathbb{R}$ if you like). Then your equation reads $E[X] E[X^3] \ge E[X^2] E[X^2]$ which is false; the left side is 0 and the right side is 1. For an example with a continuous random variable, let $X$ be uniformly distributed on $[-1,1]$.
Feb 4, 2015 at 3:27 comment added Yemon Choi If you assume that $g\geq 0$ in the general problem then the result follows immediately from the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality: $Xg(X)= Xg(X)^{1/2}\cdot g(X)^{1/2}$
Feb 4, 2015 at 3:26 comment added Yemon Choi In your "simple case" you seem to be assuming that $g$ takes positive values (because you want $g_1g_2\geq 0$
Feb 4, 2015 at 3:12 review First posts
Feb 4, 2015 at 3:22
Feb 4, 2015 at 3:10 history asked Aliveli CC BY-SA 3.0